1.参考：
http://laudatortemporisacti.blogspot.com/2006/05/ominous
I don't know if those really are the words to the Latin chant in the movie. But if they are, half of the words are incorrect.
Sanguis is nominative and cannot be the object of "we drink". It should be accusative sanguinem instead.
There is no Latin verb bebo, from which bebimus would come. Read bibimus. Because ave is imperative singular, we need the vocative singular of Satanas to go with it, which is Satana, not Satani (see the Vulgate of Matthew 16.23).
Old English Satan < Latin Satān < Ancient Greek Σατάν < Hebrew שָׂטָן (Śāṭān) ‘adversary, accuser’
www.satannet.com/forum/ubbthreads.php?ubb=showflat...
We had a thread about this some time ago. Here goes again:
"Hail Satan!" in Latin is either "Ave Satanas!", or "Ave Satana!" (even "Ave Satan!" would be possible, with a direct loan from the Hebrew). You may find the correct Latin in Doc's works, by the way.
And ... that "Satani" from? It's used in the Omen film series, but that doesn't mean it's Latin.
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First, I would say "Ave" is an imperative, not a vocative, since it is not a noun, but a verbal form (from the verb *[h]aveo).
Second, Satan was introduced in the Holy Bible in the Old Testament, not the New.
Third, Latin "Satanas" does not come from the Hebrew form of Satan, which is "Satan" (unvocalized: /s' - t. - n/) - not "Satanas", which is Greek. Latin "Satanas" therefore comes from the Greek "Satanas". In Greek, the Hebrew "Satan" was adapted as "Satanas", i.e., with a Greek ending. In Greek, "Satanas" is not indeclinable, whereas "Satan" is (Hebrew loan). In Latin, "Satan" is indeclinable (Hebrew loan), and "Satanas" may be indeclinable (Greek loan). Dr. LaVey uses this variant, i.e. Satanas as a Greek loan and indeclinable. However, truth be told, most often we find "Satanas" in Latin as declinable, using either the Latin or Greek declinations. This means Cicero would probably have dated his personal papers "Anno Satanae" instead of "Anno Satanas" ...
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One thing, though, your teacher may be a highly respected theologian and be of the opinion that Satanas in Greek as it's used in the New Testament is indeclinable, but I have here in front of me the New Testament in Greek and I just checked a famous passage:Mark 3:23 "kai proskalesamenos autous en parabolais elegen autois pws dunatai satanas satanan ekballein" - "And he called them unto him, and said unto them in parables, How can Satan cast out Satan?"
Clearly, "Satanas" is NOT undeclinable, since we have the nominative "Satanas" versus the accusative "Satanan" here.And this is just one example ...
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